Please answer my question
Hello,
Sign up to join our community!
Sign up to join our community!
Please sign in to your account!
Lost your password? Please enter your email address. You will receive a link and will create a new password via email.
Please briefly explain why you feel this question should be reported.
Please briefly explain why you feel this answer should be reported.
Please briefly explain why you feel this user should be reported.
Please answer my question
Hi Ganet,
Thank you for your question. Let’s take a look at the verse you mentioned:
John 14:28 You have heard Me say to you, ‘I am going away and coming back to you.’ If you loved Me, you would rejoice because I said, ‘I am going to the Father,’ for My Father is greater than I.
In order to correctly interpret Jesus’ words in this verse, we should consider John chapter 14 in it’s entirety. In verse 20 Jesus says:
20 At that day you will know that I am in My Father, and you in Me, and I in you.
As we can see, Jesus claims to be in God. What does it mean? Well, it must be something pretty hard to grasp for some in order for Jesus to have worded it like: in that day you will know. As if there was something that wasn’t fully registering in their minds then. Jesus saying the Father is greater than I, is not in terms of essense, but rather in rank. Why is this? Because of the fact that He took on flesh.
It is also imperative that we bring the entire book of John into play (including it’s prologue).
In the prologue of John, we learn about the Word who was with God and that the Word was God (verse 1). All things were made through Him (verse 3). Verse 4 mentions that in Him was life.
Keep reading to learn why Jesus is able to say “The Father is greater than I”:
14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.
Now that we have taken a look at the first pages of the book of John, have established Jesus as God & Creator, full of life and having the glory of God the Father in him, we can return to chapter 14 of John, in verse 21 Jesus says:
21 And he who loves Me will be loved by My Father, and I will love him and manifest Myself to him.
How will Jesus know every single person that loves him? And how will he have the ability to love all of those people, and how will he be able to manifest himself to all who love him?
I am not sure if you claim to adhere to the bible while interpreting Jesus to be merely a messenger. But if so, how can Jesus claiming such powerful attributes be reconciled?
In order to reconcile these verses, Jesus has to be all-knowing (omniscient), all-powerful (omnipotent), and ever present (omnipresent).
The real kicker here is how Jesus is already knowing the things he will do after his death & resurrection, plainly telling the people, & then acknowledging that they will not see it until that day.
It is perfectly normal for Christians to come across those who misinterpret Jesus’ words.
P.S.. notice the resemblance of John 14:20 & Isaiah 42:6:
John 14:20 At that day you will know that I am in My Father, and you in Me, and I in you.
Isaiah 52:6″ Therefore My people shall know My name; Therefore they shall know in that day That I am He who speaks: ‘Behold, it is I.’ ”
Jesus had been whispering the same message throughout the Torah & the gospel. Knowing that those with ears to hear eventually will.